ARRT exam prep
ARRT Patient Care Practice Questions: Free 20-Question Set
Patients don't fail boards on physics — they fail on patient care details. The identification rules, consent language, skin-care protocols, and communication responses in this set mirror the ARRT Patient Care content category, and every question includes a full explanation of why the correct answer is correct.
Want the same depth for the physics and simulation categories? Rad Therapy Guru packs mock exams, question banks with rationales, flashcards, and mastery tracking into one free trial, and it was built by a working therapist and instructor you can read about here.
Section A — Infection Control & Standard Precautions
Questions 1–4 · answers and explanations included
A patient with no known infectious disease arrives for a routine daily treatment. Which infection control practice applies?
- A.Contact precautions with gown and gloves
- B.Airborne precautions with an N95 respirator
- C.Standard precautions — treat all blood and body fluids as potentially infectiousCorrect
- D.No precautions are needed for patients without a documented infection
Answer: C
Standard precautions apply to every patient contact, regardless of diagnosis, because infective status is not always known. Treat all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious; transmission-based precautions are added only for documented or suspected infections.
Why is a patient typically kept NPO before a CT simulation that includes intravenous contrast administration?
- A.Contrast agents stain the teeth
- B.To reduce the risk of aspiration if the patient reacts to the contrastCorrect
- C.Contrast is not absorbed when food is in the stomach
- D.Fasting measurably improves the quality of the CT images
Answer: B
Facility protocol usually requires fasting before IV contrast so the stomach is empty, lowering the risk of vomiting and aspiration if the patient has a contrast reaction. Always follow the facility's written NPO protocol for contrast studies.
During setup you discover a patient has a documented latex allergy. The correct response is to:
- A.Proceed, since latex exposure is only a concern during surgery
- B.Use nitrile gloves and latex-free equipment, and flag the chart so the whole team knowsCorrect
- C.Proceed but apply a topical antihistamine to the skin first
- D.Have the patient self-administer an antihistamine before each treatment
Answer: B
A documented latex allergy calls for latex-free supplies — nitrile gloves, latex-free tubing and devices — and a clear chart flag so every caregiver avoids latex exposure. Therapists never medicate patients; substitution of materials is the correct control.
A patient is in the nadir period of concurrent chemotherapy. Why does this matter for daily radiation treatment?
- A.Nadir increases infection risk, so screen for fever and recent sick contacts before treatmentCorrect
- B.Nadir makes the skin more radiation sensitive, so treatment must stop
- C.Nadir patients cannot lie flat for the daily setup
- D.Nadir requires the daily radiation dose to be cut in half
Answer: A
During the nadir, white blood cell counts are at their lowest and infection risk peaks. Screen for fever, chills, and sick contacts before treatment and notify the care team of any findings — the radiation dose itself is not changed at the nadir.
Section B — Identification, Assessment & Emergencies
Questions 5–8 · answers and explanations included
Before delivering a treatment, patient identity is best verified by:
- A.The room number listed on the appointment schedule
- B.Two independent identifiers, such as full name and date of birthCorrect
- C.Recognizing the patient from yesterday's visit
- D.The name written on the immobilization device alone
Answer: B
Regulatory and accreditation standards require two independent identifiers — typically full name and date of birth — before treatment or any procedure. Room numbers and recognition are never acceptable identifiers, and a single source is not enough.
A new patient is weak and unsteady when admitted for simulation. Falls prevention requires the therapist to:
- A.Wait for the patient to fall before intervening
- B.Assess fall risk on first encounter, document the assessment, and take extra care with weak or sedated patientsCorrect
- C.Assess fall risk only for patients over 75 years old
- D.Rely on the patient to report dizziness during the setup
Answer: B
Fall risk is assessed at the first encounter and documented, with extra precautions for weak, sedated, or unsteady patients. Waiting for a fall or relying on patient self-report is reactive, not prevention.
The normal resting heart rate range for an adult is:
- A.40–60 beats per minute
- B.60–100 beats per minuteCorrect
- C.100–140 beats per minute
- D.140–180 beats per minute
Answer: B
A normal adult resting pulse is 60–100 beats per minute. Readings outside that range — marked bradycardia or tachycardia — should prompt the therapist to hold the procedure per protocol and notify the physician.
During setup a patient says she feels faint. The therapist should first:
- A.Continue the setup quickly before she loses consciousness
- B.Have the patient lower her head or lie supine, monitor her, and call for help per protocolCorrect
- C.Offer the patient a caffeinated beverage
- D.Ignore the complaint unless the patient actually faints
Answer: B
A faint or dizzy patient is lowered to a supine or head-down position, monitored, and helped — with staff assistance per protocol. Continuing the setup or waiting for syncope risks injury from a fall off the treatment couch.
Section C — Communication & Patient Support
Questions 9–12 · answers and explanations included
The best way to communicate with a hearing-impaired patient is to:
- A.Shout so the patient can hear you across the room
- B.Face the patient, speak clearly at a normal pace, and offer written informationCorrect
- C.Speak in an exaggeratedly slow, high-pitched voice
- D.Direct your questions to the patient's family member instead
Answer: B
Face the patient so lip reading and facial cues help, speak clearly at a normal pace — shouting distorts speech — and provide written information for key instructions. Talking past the patient to a family member is disrespectful and unsafe.
After giving setup instructions, you ask the patient to repeat the instructions back to you. This technique is called:
- A.Open-ended questioning
- B.Closed-loop communicationCorrect
- C.Motivational interviewing
- D.Informed consent
Answer: B
Asking the patient to restate instructions — closed-loop communication, or teach-back — verifies understanding rather than assuming it. It catches misunderstandings before they cause setup errors or missed pre-treatment instructions.
A patient asks whether hair lost from whole-brain irradiation will grow back. The most accurate counseling is:
- A.The hair will never return
- B.Hair typically begins to regrow about 3 months after treatment endsCorrect
- C.Hair regrows within 2 weeks of starting treatment
- D.Only transplanted hair will ever regrow
Answer: B
Alopecia within the radiation field is expected, and regrowth generally begins about 3 months after treatment ends. Honest, specific expectations help the patient prepare; giving false timelines or ignoring the question is poor supportive care.
A newly diagnosed patient is tearful before her first treatment. The most therapeutic response is to:
- A.Reassure her that everything will be fine
- B.Acknowledge her fear, listen, and allow her to express her feelingsCorrect
- C.Change the subject to the technical details of the plan
- D.Tell her that other patients have had it worse
Answer: B
Therapeutic communication acknowledges and explores the patient's feelings. Minimizing statements like "everything will be fine" are false reassurance — they shut down communication and are exactly the wrong answer on board-style questions.
Section D — Consent, Ethics & Privacy
Questions 13–16 · answers and explanations included
For informed consent to be valid, the risks, benefits, and alternatives of treatment must be explained by:
- A.The radiation therapist, at the first treatment
- B.The physician, with the patient or authorized representative signing the consent formCorrect
- C.The dosimetrist during treatment planning
- D.The admitting nurse before discharge
Answer: B
The physician explains the risks, benefits, and alternatives and obtains the signed consent. The therapist's role is to verify the signed consent exists before the first fraction — never to conduct the consent discussion.
An advance directive is best described as a document that:
- A.Lists the patient's medication allergies
- B.Records a patient's wishes for end-of-life care, which the care team must honorCorrect
- C.Authorizes the hospital to release billing records
- D.Serves as a prescription for palliative radiation
Answer: B
An advance directive documents a patient's end-of-life care wishes — for example a living will or healthcare proxy — and the care team is obligated to honor it. It has nothing to do with allergies, billing, or prescriptions.
The HIPAA "minimum necessary" standard requires that you:
- A.Share a patient's full record with anyone on the care team
- B.Access or share only the information needed to perform your taskCorrect
- C.Never discuss a patient's care with the treating physician
- D.Post a public notice of every release of information
Answer: B
Under the minimum-necessary standard, you access, use, and disclose only the protected health information required for the task at hand — even within the care team. Sharing a full record out of convenience is a violation.
A patient requests a same-gender caregiver for religious reasons. The appropriate response is to:
- A.Explain that staffing cannot be controlled and proceed
- B.Accommodate the request when possible and document the preferenceCorrect
- C.Require the patient to reschedule until the request is granted
- D.Ask the patient to put the request in writing with a notarized signature
Answer: B
Religious and cultural preferences around caregivers should be accommodated whenever possible and documented so the preference is respected across the treatment course. Refusing outright or adding bureaucratic hurdles disrespects patient autonomy.
Section E — Treatment Field & Comfort Care
Questions 17–20 · answers and explanations included
Regarding skin marks and permanent tattoos in the treatment field, the therapist should:
- A.Scrub the marks gently each day to keep them visible
- B.Avoid scrubbing or washing off the marks, leave permanent tattoos intact, and report any fading to the therapistCorrect
- C.Remove the tattoos with alcohol at the end of the treatment course
- D.Redraw all marks daily without notifying anyone
Answer: B
Treatment marks are the alignment record: never scrub them or let them be washed off, protect permanent tattoos, and report fading or missing marks so alignment is never improvised. Skin care in the field follows the physician's ordered protocol.
Compared with supportive pillows alone, custom immobilization devices improve treatment because they:
- A.Make each setup faster, which is their only advantage
- B.Provide consistent, reproducible positioning that is documented for every fractionCorrect
- C.Eliminate the need for daily image verification
- D.Allow the patient to reposition freely during treatment
Answer: B
Reproducibility is the point of immobilization: custom devices hold the same position fraction after fraction and are part of the documented setup. They complement, but never replace, image verification.
A claustrophobic patient is anxious about entering the CT bore. The best first approach is:
- A.Sedation ordered by any available staff member
- B.Breathing techniques, clear communication, and comfort measures — sedation only per a physician's orderCorrect
- C.Restraining the patient in the immobilization device
- D.Telling the patient the anxiety will pass on its own
Answer: B
Non-pharmacologic measures come first: coaching, communication, and comfort modifications. Sedation is a physician-ordered intervention, not a first response, and restraint or dismissal is never appropriate.
During a routine check you note moist desquamation in the treatment field. The correct action is to:
- A.Apply a dry dressing and continue without notifying anyone
- B.Notify the physician, document the findings, and follow the ordered skin care protocolCorrect
- C.Pause treatment for two weeks on your own authority
- D.Tell the patient it is expected and needs no care
Answer: B
Moist desquamation is a reportable skin reaction: notify the physician, document the assessment, and follow the ordered skin care regimen. Therapists do not independently stop treatment or improvise dressings beyond protocol.
How Did You Do?
Score yourself one point per correct answer, then act on your band:
17–20 correct
You are in strong shape.
You are close to exam-ready. Identify your weakest category above and drill it until every explanation feels routine — then keep up timed practice sets.
12–16 correct
Solid foundation.
You know the fundamentals but have gaps. Rebuild the categories where you missed the most questions, then retake this set in a week and confirm the score holds.
Under 12
Study by category.
Map every miss to the ARRT Patient Care content outline — infection control, patient safety, communication, and legal/ethical practice — and study one category at a time, starting with your weakest.
Get the printable Dosimetry Cheat Sheet (PDF)
Patient care covers the people, physics covers the numbers — grab the free printable dosimetry cheat sheet with your email and it downloads instantly.
Ready for the full study suite?
These 20 questions are a taste of the practice materials inside Rad Therapy Guru: timed mock exams, adaptive quizzes, flashcards, and mastery tracking across every ARRT topic.
ARRT Patient Care Practice Questions FAQ
How many patient care questions are on the ARRT exam?
Patient Care is one of the five main content categories on the ARRT Radiation Therapy exam. Combined with the Safety category, it accounts for roughly a fifth of the scored questions, so it deserves dedicated practice — not just physics drilling.
How hard is ARRT patient care?
Most students find the hands-on clinical parts familiar from rotations. The points students actually miss tend to come from legal and ethical duties — consent, HIPAA, advance directives — and from communication questions that test the "right response" to an emotional patient, exactly what this set drills.
How long should I study patient care for the ARRT exam?
Most candidates prepare over 3–6 months in total, and patient care responds well to short, repeated practice sessions with questions like these — the details are easy to memorize a little at a time.
Are the answer explanations important?
Yes. A rationale turns every miss into a specific study target, and the ARRT exams reward the clinical reasoning behind each answer — not just a memorized keyword. Read the explanation for every question, even the ones you got right.
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Content reviewed by Kate, a working radiation therapist and instructor — see the full story on the about page.